People keep asking for an example for objective morality…and I keep giving one, and honestly I don’t think people are quite understanding the answer. It is based upon the same line of reasoning that Harris or Carrier uses to ground objective morality. This bizarre notion some atheist have that objective morality can not exist is merely a kneejerk reaction to theist sometimes asserting that to have objective morality you must have a God, or that objective morality exist then God must exist. Neither of which are true.
Objective morality is merely a metaethical position that propositions express moral facts, same as subjective morality…the difference being that an objective moral fact is akin to a objective ontological fact (putting aside any argument from queerness here) in that it makes *no* difference to the framework if the axioms or bases for the framework is subjective or even arbitrary (this is the trap of subjective reductionism). In math we have axioms which are subjective in that they are unsupported assumptions, and not objectively true. However, 1+1=2 is true by analytical definitions based upon those axioms and therefore objectively true. It makes no difference whatsoever if someone disagrees and thinks 1+1=3 to the objective fact that 1+1=2. Using this same analogous relationship we can apply it to morals and say if we formulate axioms (grounding) we can then build an objective moral framework from it. So when people ask for an example of objective morality here is my answer:
Moral grounding in harms/benefits by a society by mutual compact allows a hypothetical imperative case of having an an objective moral framework to allow for such moral facts such as “it is morally impermissible to be wantonly cruel to someone for the sake of being cruel.” would be an example of objective morality.